Is homosexuality a sin or is being gay a sin according to the New Testament: 1 Tim. 1:9-10 and 1 Cor. 6:9-10?

The term "homosexuality" was introduced into the English language in 1892, according to the Merriam-Webster Online Dictionary"homosexuality." Merriam-Webster Online Dictionary, 2012.. Thus, the King James Version of the Bible was in existence approximately 281 years before the term "homosexuality" was used in the English language. Furthermore, the original New Testament 1 Corinthians and 1 Timothy letters were written almost 2000 years before the term "homosexuality" had been created, before the English language existed. It wasn't until 1946 when the word "homosexuality" is first introduced into a Bible version.1 The "homosexuality" word introduction occurred because some translators determined that the ancient Greek word, arsenokoitēs, was best-translated to mean "homosexuality." Were they correct?

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Compare these verses:

1 Tim. 1:9-10 ESV states: "(U)nderstanding this, that the law is not laid down for the just but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and sinners, for the unholy and profane, for those who strike their fathers and mothers, for murderers, the sexually immoral, men who practice homosexuality, enslavers, liars, perjurers, and whatever else is contrary to sound doctrine. . . ."

1 Cor. 6:9-10 ESV states: "Or do you not know that the unrighteous will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: neither the sexually immoral, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor men who practice homosexuality, nor thieves, nor the greedy, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor swindlers will inherit the kingdom of God."

Notice that in both of these verses "men who practice homosexuality" are forbidden from entering heaven. However, according to the King James Version of the Bible:

1 Tim. 1:9-10 KJV states: "Knowing this, that the law is not made for a righteous man, but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and for sinners, for unholy and profane, for murderers of fathers and murderers of mothers, for manslayers, (f)or whoremongers, for them that defile themselves with mankind, for menstealers, for liars, for perjured persons, and if there be any other thing that is contrary to sound doctrine. . . ."

1 Cor. 6:9-10 KJV states: "Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind, (n)or thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners, shall inherit the kingdom of God."

Notice that in these verses, the "effeminate" and "abusers of themselves with mankind" are forbidden from entering the kingdom of heaven.

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So, the questions that we must ask are these:

1. Does the ancient Greek word arsenokoitēs refer to male homosexuality in the New Testament?

2. Did other ancient Greek words exist that could have referred to homosexuality or being gay?

Paul not only states in 1 Cor. 6:9 that arsenokoitēs will not enter into heaven, but he also states in 1 Cor. 6:9 that malakos will not enter into heaven. The King James Version of the Bible translates this word to mean "effeminate;" however, the English Standard Version Bible combines the word malakos with arsenokoitēs in the next section of Paul's verse and translates the combination of the phrases to mean "men who practice homosexuality." Thus, we must ask ourselves:

3. What does the term malakos, translated as "effeminate," mean in 1 Corinthians 6:9?

4. Do the words malakos + arsenokoitēs combined refer to male homosexuality in 1 Timothy 1:10 and 1 Corinthians 6:9?

5. Why did Paul write a letter to the Corinthians?

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1Gerig, 2011, p. 1 Return

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